modifyed Objective questions 170

1 to 30:

4. Who is the head of public complaints at the Divisional level?

Answer: Additional Divisional Railway Manager (ADRM)

5. A public complaint is made in how many copies?

Answer: Three

6. The Local Blank Paper Tickets (BPTs) are of which coloured books?

Answer: Pink

7. The Excess Fare Tickets (EFTs) are of which coloured books?

Answer: White

8. How many languages are mandatory on Second Class unreserved printed card tickets?

Answer: Three

9. On a computerized reservation ticket, what does PNR stand for?

Answer: Passenger Name Record

10. Ticket checking staff will issue which type of ticket only?

Answer: Excess Fare Ticket

11. A Cash Remittance Note has one foil and how many counter foils?

Answer: Two

12. As a result of which type of check of traffic documents and returns rendered by stations, are Error Sheets issued by the Traffic Accounts Office?

Answer: Internal check

13. Who are deputed at the Cash Office from the Commercial Department to protect the interest of the station staff?

Answer: Traffic Cash Witnesses

14. Correction slips are issued by whom?

Answer: Zonal Railways

15. What does RDSO stand for?

Answer: Research Designs and Standards Organisation

16. What does CRIS stand for?

Answer: Centre for Railway Information Systems

17. What does IRFC stand for?

Answer: Indian Railway Finance Corporation

18. What does IRCON stand for?

Answer: Indian Railway Construction Company Limited

19. What does RITES stand for?

Answer: Rail India Technical and Economic Services

20. What does COIS stand for?

Answer: Coaching Operations Information System

21. What does FOIS stand for?

Answer: Freight Operations Information System

22. What does AGM stand for?

Answer: Additional General Manager

23. What does MOSR stand for?

Answer: Minister of State for Railways

24. A soldier ticket is issued in exchange for Military Warrant Number what?

Answer: IAFT 1707

25. What does ICCRP stand for?

Answer: Identity Card-cum-Rail Pass

26. The High Official Requisition (HOR) is presented at stations in how many portions?

Answer: Two

27. A Check Soldier Ticket is issued in exchange for Military Warrant Number what?

Answer: IAFT 1752

28. Sleeping accommodation is provided from what time to what time?

Answer: 21:00 hours to 06:00 hours

29. Accommodation for ladies must be reserved in trains as per which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 58

30. What does CONCERT stand for?

Answer: Countrywide Network of Computerized Enhanced Reservation and Ticketing 

31 to 60:

31. Reservation can be made how many days in advance for foreign nationals?

Answer: 360 days

32. Male persons found travelling in ladies' compartments shall be prosecuted as per which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 162

33. A Ticket Deposit Receipt (TDR) can be issued up to how many days after the scheduled departure of the train?

Answer: 30 days

34. Drunkenness or nuisance upon a railway is dealt with under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 145

35. What is the minimum cancellation charge on a First Class reserved ticket?

Answer: (Not provided; please confirm the current charge from latest commercial circular)

36. Transfer of accommodation to another person is prohibited under which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 53

37. A passenger should hold a ticket for a distance of more than how many kilometres to break the journey?

Answer: 500 kilometres

38. What is the free luggage allowance on a Second Class season ticket?

Answer: 10 kilograms

39. When a Guard’s Certificate is granted, what amount does the passenger have to pay?

Answer: Fare only

40. What is the marginal allowance on a Second Class Express child ticket?

Answer: 5 kilograms

41. Articles booked on a journey ticket or a pass are known as what?

Answer: Luggage

42. Season tickets are issued in which classes?

Answer: First Class and Second Class

43. Season tickets may be renewed up to how many days in advance of the date of expiry?

Answer: 10 days

44. Market Vendor Season Tickets are issued for a maximum distance of how many kilometres?

Answer: 150 kilometres

45. What is the validity period of an identity card issued along with a season ticket?

Answer: 5 years

46. What is the maximum number of break journeys allowed on a circular journey ticket?

Answer: 8

47. IRCA concession is allowed on which type of fare only?

Answer: Basic fare

48. The check conducted with the object to fix or refix the target is called what?

Answer: Replacement check

49. A massive check is also known as what?

Answer: Operational check

50. What is the minimum weight for charging luggage?

Answer: 10 kilograms

51. What is the free luggage allowance on a Market Vendor Season Ticket (MVST) for the outward journey?

Answer: 60 kilograms

52. What is the marginal allowance on an AC First Class ticket?

Answer: 15 kilograms

53. Break journey is not allowed at which type of stations?

Answer: Suburban stations

54. A Guard’s Certificate is prepared in how many copies?

Answer: Three

55. What is the numerical code for a Guard’s Certificate?

Answer: COM 164 B

56. A person prosecuted under Section 142 of the Railways Act is liable to pay a fine of how much?

Answer: Rs. 500

57. What is the fine for occupying accommodation reserved for others?

Answer: Rs. 500

58. What is the free luggage allowance on a Second Class ordinary child ticket?

Answer: 17.5 kilograms

59. A retiring room ticket is valid for how many hours?

Answer: 24 hours

60. A High Official found travelling with an unexchanged High Official Requisition (HOR) should be charged with what?

Answer: Free Excess Fare Ticket (EFT)

61 to 90:

61. What is the free luggage allowance on an AC 3-Tier ticket?

Answer: 40 kilograms

62. Suburban tickets are valid for how many hours from the time of issue?

Answer: 2 hours

63. Exhibition and surrender of passes and tickets is governed by which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 54

64. A Cash Remittance Note (CR Note) will be prepared separately — one for what, and the other for what?

Answer: One for cash and the other for cash vouchers

65. The Advance Statement of Gross Earnings is submitted by stations to which office on the 11th and 21st of the same month and the 1st of the following month?

Answer: Traffic Accounts Office

66. The Excess Fare Tickets (EFTs) are prepared in three foils with the aid of double-sided carbon. The first foil is for whom, the second for whom, and the third for whom?

Answer: First for Accounts, second for Passenger, and third for Record

67. The Daily Train Cash Book-cum-Summary is the complete record of which type of earnings maintained at the stations?

Answer: Coaching earnings

68. The Traffic Cash Witness should sign which portion of the Cash Remittance Note (CR Note) received from the station?

Answer: Counter foils

69. Foreign Blank Paper Tickets (FBPTs) are of which colour and have a wave band from which to which corner?

Answer: Pink colour with a red wave band from the top right-hand corner to the bottom left-hand corner

70. Excess Fare Tickets (EFTs) are issued to passengers found travelling under which conditions by ticket checking staff?

Answer: Without ticket or with improper ticket

71. Blank Paper Tickets (BPTs) are issued in exchange of what?

Answer: Concession orders, Police warrants, and when printed card tickets are not available

72. Safety Surcharges are collected for every class of travel on what basis?

Answer: Per passenger basis

73. In emergent circumstances when printed tickets and Blank Paper Tickets are out of stock, passengers should be issued what in lieu of Printed Card Tickets (PCTs)?

Answer: Excess Fare Tickets (EFTs)

74. Separate class-wise accountal of the number of passengers booked and Safety Surcharge collected is maintained on what four bases?

Answer: Daily basis, 10-day period basis, Monthly basis, and Yearly basis

75. What is received, duly acknowledged by the Bank, and sent to the Cash Office entered on the CR Note?

Answer: Challan Note

76. The Passenger Classification Return is prepared monthly from the monthly summary sheet of which record and submitted to which office?

Answer: From the Daily Train Cash (DTC) Book, submitted to Traffic Accounts Office

77. Separate Passenger Classification Returns are prepared in respect of which four types of tickets?

Answer: Printed local tickets, Printed through tickets, Blank paper local tickets, Blank paper through tickets

78. As a result of internal check of traffic documents and returns rendered by stations, what are issued by which office?

Answer: Error Sheets are issued by the Accounts Office

79. Error Sheets are prepared by carbon process in how many copies? How many are filed in the Accounts Office and how many are sent to the Senior Divisional Commercial Manager (Sr.DCM)?

Answer: Four copies; one filed in Accounts Office and three sent to Sr.DCM

80. IRCA Coaching Tariff No. 25, Part I, Volume II contains rules for what?

Answer: Rules for various concessions

81. IRCA Goods Tariff No. 41, Part I, Volume I contains general rules for what?

Answer: General rules for acceptance, booking, carriage, and delivery of goods

82. Commercial Manuals are published in how many volumes and issued by whom?

Answer: Two volumes, issued by Indian Railway Conference Association (IRCA)

83. What is the script of Rajbhasha (Official Language)?

Answer: Devanagari

84. One copy of an Error Sheet should be returned to the Traffic Accounts Office with all necessary documents by whom and within how many days of receipt?

Answer: By the Station, within 7 days

85. Traffic Inspectors of Accounts (TIAs) function under the control of whom?

Answer: Financial Adviser and Chief Accounts Officer (FA&CAO) / Works and Stores (WST)

86. On a computerized reservation ticket, what does PNR stand for?

Answer: Passenger Name Record

87. The Railway Claims Tribunal was set up in which year under which Act?

Answer: In 1989, under the Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987

88. Compensation under the Passenger Insurance Scheme is settled by whom?

Answer: Railway Claims Tribunal (RCT)

89. Parcels are charged either by what or by what, whichever is higher?

Answer: Weight or weight by measurement

90. At the Divisional level, the National Railway (NR) Cell is set up at which location?

Answer: Commercial Control Room

91 to 120:

91. Who is the head of the public grievance cell at the Zonal level?

Answer: Additional General Manager (AGM)

92. Who is the head of the Vigilance Organization at the Zonal level?

Answer: Senior Deputy General Manager (SDGM)

93. On a circular journey ticket, reservation charges are collected on what basis?

Answer: For every leg of the journey

94. Non-issued tickets are sent to the Accounts Office every day through what?

Answer: Cash Remittance Note (CR Note)

95. In case of stations up to 250 kilometres, Printed Card Tickets (PCTs) can be indented when there is a minimum sale of how many tickets in a year?

Answer: 400 tickets

96. In case of stations beyond 250 kilometres, Printed Card Tickets (PCTs) can be indented when there is a minimum sale of how many tickets in a year?

Answer: 200 tickets

97. When a passenger holding a reserved ticket is not provided with accommodation, what percentage of refund is allowed?

Answer: 100%

98. The check conducted at a particular station for a period of not less than 8 hours is known as what?

Answer: Spot check

99. The check conducted for 96 hours throughout the Indian Railways is called what?

Answer: Chairman, Railway Board (CRB) check

100. Unrealized earnings of a station are termed as what?

Answer: Station Outstanding

101. Earnings from parcel traffic come under which accounting head?

Answer: Other Coaching Earnings

102. Earnings from catering units come under which accounting head?

Answer: Sundry Earnings

103. What does PCEV stand for?

Answer: Percentage Charge on Excess Value

104. The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) works under which Ministry?

Answer: Ministry of Civil Aviation

105. What is the minimum commission for a halt contractor?

Answer: Rs. 500

106. Who is the Chairman of the Divisional Railway Users’ Consultative Committee (DRUCC)?

Answer: Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)

107. What does ODR stand for?

Answer: Oldest Date of Registration

108. What does ODC stand for?

Answer: Over Dimensional Consignment

109. Wax seals should not be used for wagons loaded with what type of goods?

Answer: Explosives

110. For delay in loading a wagon, what charge is levied by the Railway?

Answer: Demurrage charge

111. The major portion of Railway revenue is derived from what?

Answer: Goods traffic

112. Military traffic comes under which priority?

Answer: Priority A

113. What does PTVM stand for?

Answer: Platform Ticket Vending Machine

114. For administrative convenience, Indian Railways are divided into how many zones?

Answer: 16 zones

115. What is the minimum distance for charge in Sleeper Class?

Answer: 200 kilometres

116. Who is the head of Public Relations at the Zonal level?

Answer: Chief Public Relations Officer (CPRO)

117. General Managers of Zonal Railways are provided with which type of metal pass?

Answer: Gold metal pass

118. The requisition portion of a High Official Requisition (HOR) retained at the station is treated as what?

Answer: Cash Voucher

119. What is the maximum number of break journeys permitted on a circular journey ticket?

Answer: 8

120. Break journey is permitted on a single journey ticket issued for a distance of more than how many kilometres?

Answer: 500 kilometres

121 to 150:

121. What is the maximum number of concessions allowed at one time on a railway ticket?

Answer: Only one

122. Coaching Tariff Part I, Volume II contains rules for what?

Answer: Rules for various concessions allowed on journey tickets

123. Correct declaration of commodity should be made as per which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 66

124. If the description of the commodity declared is found to be false, penalty is imposed as per which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 163

125. What is the minimum chargeable weight for booking a parcel?

Answer: 10 kilograms

126. Marking of consignments can be classified into which two categories?

Answer: Railway marking and Private marking

127. If the freight charges shown on the invoice or Railway Receipt (RR) are less than actually due, what are they called?

Answer: Undercharges

128. If the freight charges shown on the invoice or Railway Receipt (RR) are more than actually due, what are they called?

Answer: Overcharges

129. After comparing the Monthly Progress Account (MPA) with the delivery book, the entries copied from the delivery book to the MPA are called what?

Answer: Inked entries

130. After comparing the Monthly Progress Account (MPA) with the delivery book, the entries copied from the MPA to the delivery book are called what?

Answer: Forced entries

131. As per which section of the Railways Act, 1989 is the Central Government empowered to issue orders specifying goods to be carried by a specific route?

Answer: Section 71

132. Outstanding at the rebooking station is cleared on the strength of what?

Answer: Copy of rebooking Railway Receipt (RR)

133. Delivery short of destination is treated as what?

Answer: Diversion

134. When a Railway official books a consignment to another Railway official in their official capacity, what is issued?

Answer: Railway Material Consignment (RMC) Note

135. The freight charges are not accounted in the cash book in case of booking of what type of goods?

Answer: RMC goods (Railway Material Consignments)

136. What is the initial document that determines the Railway’s liability for loss, damage, etc., of goods or parcels?

Answer: Forwarding Note

137. What is the primary objective of sealing a wagon or consignment?

Answer: To locate theft

138. A BOXN standard rake consists of how many wagons?

Answer: 58 wagons

139. A BCX standard rake consists of how many wagons?

Answer: 40 wagons

140. Demurrage is levied for what, beyond the free time?

Answer: Detention of rolling stock

141. Wharfage is levied for what, within the free time?

Answer: Not removing consignments from Railway premises

142. What is the colour of the Forwarding Note used for booking dangerous goods?

Answer: Pink

143. Break journey is allowed for animals after travelling a distance of how many kilometres?

Answer: 320 kilometres

144. What is the authority required for booking explosives?

Answer: 'H' Certificate

145. The Station Master is empowered to grant delivery of consignments on indemnity bond up to a maximum value of how much?

Answer: Rs. 1,00,000 (One Lakh)

146. Damage and Deficiency Memo (DDM) should be issued within how many hours from the time of opening of the wagon?

Answer: 6 hours

147. A Forwarding Note should be preserved for a minimum period of how many years?

Answer: 5 years

148. What is the highest parcel rate scale used in Railways?

Answer: Scale 'R'

149. In case of diversion, outstanding at the original destination is cleared on the strength of what?

Answer: Change of Consignee (COC)

150. What does WT wagon stand for?

Answer: Water Tight wagon

151 to 170:

151. A label with arrow marks on a package indicates what?

Answer: Quick Transit Symbol (QTS)

152. When a Wagon Demand Registration Fee (WDRF) receipt is lost, refund can be made on the strength of what?

Answer: Indemnity Bond

153. The refund of Wagon Demand Registration Fee (WDRF) should be claimed within how many years?

Answer: 3 years

154. As per which section of the Railways Act, 1989, undue preference should not be given to any individual or community?

Answer: Section 70

155. Priorities are given under how many series and what are they?

Answer: 4 series — A, B, C, and D

156. Part Train Option (PTO) is governed by which section of the Railways Act, 1989?

Answer: Section 71

157. What does SLO stand for in railway terminology?

Answer: Special Loading Orders

158. What is the free time allowed for removal of animals from station premises?

Answer: 5 hours

159. A Railway Receipt (RR) is issued at the doorstep of the consignor under which type of service?

Answer: Container service

160. What is the monetary liability of the Railways for small animals when the value is not declared?

Answer: Rs. 120

161. What is the monetary liability of the Railways for horned cattle when the value is not declared?

Answer: Rs. 800

162. What is the monetary liability of the Railways for a horse when the value is not declared?

Answer: Rs. 3,000

163. Demurrage charges are prescribed on what basis?

Answer: Per 8-wheeler wagon per hour

164. What does JSR stand for?

Answer: Joint Survey Report

165. A Joint Survey Report (JSR) is prepared in how many copies?

Answer: 3 copies

166. Wharfage for goods is levied on what basis?

Answer: Per quintal per day

167. Admitted debits above how much can be cleared through salary recovery?

Answer: Rs. 100

168. The purpose of comparing the Monthly Progress Account (MPA) with the Delivery Book is to ensure that all invoices issued in a month are accounted for in the same what?

Answer: Month

169. The to-pay freight total shown in the Monthly Progress Account (MPA) is taken on which side of the balance sheet and as what?

Answer: Debit side as inward to-pay freight

170. What does ATM stand for?

Answer: Automatic Teller Machine