5. training 311 MCQ

Organization                                        

1.

Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______.

Answer: Pune

2.

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at _____________.

Answer: Jamalpur

3.

Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.

Answer: Nashik

4.

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering also provides Apprenticeship training to the __________ Apprentices.

Answer: Special Class Railway

5.

Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is situated at __________.

Answer: Secunderabad

6.

Southern Railway has _______ Division.

Answer: 6

7.

How many RRBs are in Indian Railways for Recruitment of employees?

Answer: 21

8.

Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at __.

Answer: Jamalpur

9.

National Academy of Indian Railways is situated at _______

Answer: Vadodara

10.

Who is the present Chairman of Railway Board?

Answer: Jaya Verma Sinha

11.

Which Railway got the World Heritage status first?

Answer: Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

12.

Which is the Headquarters of the North East Frontier Railway?

Answer: Maligaon, Guwahati

13.

Where is the Integral Coach Factory situated?

Answer: Perambur, Chennai

14.

How many kilometres did the first passenger train travel?

Answer: 24 kms

15.

Which divisions fall under the jurisdiction of Railway Recruitment Board Trivandrum in Southern Railway?

Answer: Palghat, Thiruvananthapuram, Madurai

16.

How many kilometres did the first train travel?

Answer: 34 KMs

17.

Between which stations did the first passenger train run?

Answer: Howrah to Hooghly

18.

When was India’s first railway train started?

Answer: 16th April, 1853

19.

Between which stations did the first train run?

Answer: Between Mumbai (CST) to Thane

20.

When was India’s first passenger train started?

Answer: 15-08-1854

21.

Where is the National Rail Museum situated?

Answer: New Delhi

22.

Write the full form of DGS&D.

Answer: Directorate General of Supply & Disposal

23.

Where is the Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering situated?

Answer: Jamalpur

24.

Who inaugurated the first train service in Kashmir Valley?

Answer: Honourable Dr. Manmohan Singh

25.

When was India’s first electric train started?

Answer: 3rd February, 1925

26.

Out of the following, who is not part of the Railway Board?

Answer: Railway Minister

27.

Which was the first Zonal Railway to be formed?

Answer: Southern Railway (14th April, 1951)

28.

Who is the head of the Accounts department in Zonal Railways?

Answer: Principal Finance Adviser

29.

How many Zonal Railways are there in Indian Railways?

Answer: 18+1

30.

How many Railway Recruitment Boards are there in Indian Railways?

Answer: 21

31.

Where is the Railway Rates Tribunal situated?

Answer: Chennai

32.

Which Zonal Railway has the largest route kilometre?

Answer: Northern Railway

33.

When was the first train inaugurated in Kashmir Valley?

Answer: 11th October, 2008

34.

Under which Article of Indian Railway Act 1989 is ‘Railway” defined?

Answer: Article 3(4)

35.

When was the five digit numbering of trains introduced on Indian Railways?

Answer: 20th December, 2010

36.

Write the full form of CORE.

Answer: Central Organization for Railway Electrification

37.

Under which Para of the Indian Constitution is Trombay separated from Municipal area in Railways?

Answer: Para 366(20)

38.

When was the Indian Railway Welfare Organization (IRWO) established?

Answer: 25th September, 1989

39.

Which Railway training institute is situated at Pune?

Answer: Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering

recruitment

40.

Direct recruitment in Railway is not done in one of the following categories:

Answer: Group B

41.

Which Master Circular deals with Recruitment Rules and Recruitment of Nongazetted Staff?

Answer: 32

42.

What is the minimum service for transfer on administrative grounds?

Answer: No limit

43.

What is the percentage of LDCE quota for promotion of Jr. Clerk to Sr. Clerk? [194/2019]

Answer: 13-1/3%

44.

What is the minimum appointing authority in Group C for Level-06 post?

Answer: JAG

45.

Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are placed on______

Answer: RRB

46.

How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway Recruitment Board in a year?

Answer: Two

47.

Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC:

Answer: 27%

48.

Educational Qualification for recruitment of Probationary Station Master against Direct Recruitment Quota is_______

Answer: Graduate

49.

Medical classification of Loco Pilot (Driver) is _____

Answer: A-1

50.

Medical classification of Station Master is ____

Answer: A-2

51.

Medical classification of SE (P.Way) is ____

Answer: A-3

52.

Medical classification of Office Clerk is ____

Answer: C-2

53.

What is the probation period for promotion quota in Railways?

Answer: 01 year

Office Skills                                           

54.

All dak receipts submitted to officers will move in pads conspicuously labeled as ______.

Answer: Dak Pad

55.

The two main parts of a file are _____ and _____.

Answer: notes and correspondence

56.

The notes or correspondence portion of the file is said to have become bulky, if it exceeds__________ folios.

Answer: 300

57.

The dealing hand will append his full signature with date on the _____ his note.

Answer: left below

58.

_______ dak will be separated from other dak and dealt with first.

Answer: urgent

59.

An Officer will append his full signature on ________ side of the note with name, designation and date.

Answer: right hand

60.

File system is an arrangement of papers by ________.

Answer: subjects

61.

Before opening a new file, the dealing hand will ascertain the __________ to which the paper under consideration relates.

Answer: standard head

62.

Under classification of records class 'A' means _________.

Answer: keep and microfilm

63.

Ephemeral files are destroyed as soon as they are ______ old.

Answer: one year

Stores                                             

64.

Copies of tender notices may be displayed in the offices of field executives, HOD's offices for a period of not less than ________.

Answer: 21 days

65.

For limited tenders, _______ days' notice shall be given.

Answer: Fifteen

66.

In case of quotation tenders, ______ days' notice shall be given.

Answer: seven

67.

The tender notice should be sent to CPRO's office _______ days in advance for publication in Hindi and other national dailies.

Answer: Fifty

68.

__ is the nodal officer for preparation of Works Programme and sending it to Railway Board.

Answer: PCE

69.

Limited tenders are called through ________.

Answer: contractors from approved list

70.

___________ is an example for piece work contract.

Answer: zonal works

71.

The authority competent to approve for works of urgent nature before calling special limited tenders under two pocket system of tendering is _______.

Answer: GM

72.

The authority competent to approve for works of special nature before calling special limited tenders under two pocket system of tendering is _______.

Answer: PHOD

73.

Minimum number of contractors/agencies for calling quotations is ___.

Answer: three

74.

Preliminary Works Programme is divided into ______ volumes.

Answer: four

75.

Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Passenger amenities' is _________.

Answer: CCM

76.

Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Track Renewal Works' is _________.

Answer: PCE

77.

Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Workshops including production units' is_________.

Answer: PCE, CME, CBE

78.

Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'New Line Works' is _________.

Answer: COM

79.

Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Road Safety Works - ROB/RUB' is _________.

Answer: PCE

80.

PAC items are purchased on ________ tender basis.

Answer: single

81.

Full form of PAC is _____________.

Answer: Propriety Articles Certificate

Railway Quarters                                       

82.

Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during sick leave.

Answer: indefinite period

83.

Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on resignation/removal/dismissal from service.

Answer: one month

84.

Quarter can be retained for ____ on normal rent in the event of death.

Answer: 24 months

85.

Railway quarters can be retained during entire period of leave ex India provided that it is certified that he would be _____.

Answer: reposted to his original place on expiry of his leave

86.

Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type III quarter is Rs. ______ p.m.

Answer: Rs.25/-

87.

Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type II quarter is Rs. __ p.m.

Answer: Rs.15/-

88.

Railway quarters can be retained for a period of one month on normal rent on

Answer: All of these (Resignation, removal, Dismissal)

89.

Railway quarters can be retained for a period _____ on normal rent during suspension.

Answer: Without any time limit

90.

Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during sick leave.

Answer: Indefinite period

91.

Quarter can be retained for ____ months on normal rent in the event of death.

Answer: 24

92.

Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type IV quarter is Rs. ______ p.m.

Answer: Rs.35/-

Allowances                                         

93.

________ % of the running allowance is reckoned as pay for passes/PTOs.

Answer: 30

94.

National Holiday Allowance is paid to________ staff.

Answer: Non-Gaz.

95.

Non-practising Allowance paid to Doctors is _______% .

Answer: 20

96.

The classification of cities for the purpose of HRA is ___.

Answer: XYZ

97.

Dearness Allowance is enhanced from 50% to 53% w.e.f.

Answer: 01.07.2024

98.

Rate per month per child for Hostel subsidy is

Answer: Rs.6750+25%

99.

Nursing Allowance is payable at what rate per month? [RBE No166/2017]

Answer: Rs.7200/- +25%

100.

Travelling Allowance is paid to the railway employee's from Level-01 to Level-05 Rs.

Answer: 500+25%

Advances                                          

101.

Maximum sanction amount for house building is [RBE No.183/2017]

Answer: None of these

102.

After how many years of Railway Service, final withdrawal can be done from PF account?

Answer: 10 years

103.

The Interest for HBA is recovered in ___ installments

Answer: 60

Conduct Rules                                       

104.

The full name of “Conduct Rules” is:

Answer: The Railway Services (Conduct) Rules, 1966

105.

Railway Service Conduct Rules apply to______staff.

Answer: All

106.

Govt. means for Group C employee's in Zonal Railways in Railway Service Conduct Rules

Answer: GM

107.

Railway Service conduct Rules, Rule 3(1) has_____ sub rules.

Answer: 21

108.

Rule _____is related with Insolvency and Habitual Indebtedness of Railway Service conduct rules.

Answer: 17

109.

Under which rule of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966, consumption of intoxicated drinks is prohibited?

Answer: Rule 22

110.

Running staff shall not take any intoxication within which hours before the commencement of duty?

Answer: 8

111.

Which category of staff in Railways has to submit a return of their property at the time of promotion?

Answer: All of them

112.

Who is the Government to Southern Railway Group C employees under conduct rules?

Answer: GM

113.

How many rules available under conduct Rules?

Answer: 26

114.

Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in ____of railway service Conduct rules.

Answer: 3-C

Seniority

115.

In case training period is curtailed, the date of joining the working post in case of direct recruit shall be

Answer: Normally date of completion of training

116.

The seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB and sent for initial training is to be fixed in the order of

Answer: Merit at the examination held at the end of training

Reservation Policy                                      

117.

On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate produced by SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would be:-

Answer: Terminated

118.

10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of ______Quarter where total numbers of Quarter are 50 or more.

Answer: Both Type I & II

NPS:

119.

The employee contribution towards New Pension Scheme is

Answer: 10% of BP + DA

120.

The Govt. contribution towards New Pension Scheme is

Answer: 14%

121.

New pension scheme is effective from

Answer: 01.01.2004

122.

New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme

Answer: Automatically

123.

New Pension Scheme is

Answer: Contributory

 

Labour Laws:

124.

In a factory where more than _______ workers are ordinarily employed, a Canteen for the use of the workers shall be provided.

Answer: 250

125.

No Wage period shall exceed

Answer: One month

126.

The total amount of deduction from wages in a wage period shall not exceed ______ % in case whole or part of such deduction is made for payment to Co-operative Societies.

Answer: 75%

127.

Employees Compensation Act is implemented from

Answer: 01.07.1924

128.

In terms of ECA, In case of death minimum Rs.______________ is payable as compensation.

Answer: 120,000

129.

In terms of ECA, In case of disability minimum Rs.________ is payable as compensation

Answer: 140,000

 

RTI Act:

130.

Supply of information in normal course is ______ days under RTI Act

Answer: 30 days

131.

Supply of information concerning life or liberty of a person is

Answer: 48 hours

132.

For information under Sub-Sec.(1)of Sec.6 of RTI Act (which relates to an information from PIO)

Answer: Rs.10/-

133.

Charge per copy of records is _______ under RTI

Answer: Rs.2/-

134.

For information through per diskette or floppy charge is Rs._______ under RTI

Answer: Rs.50/-

 

Leave Rules:

135.

Days of LAP per year for Railway servant

Answer: 30 days

136.

LHAP credited per year

Answer: 20 days

137.

Maternity leave for female Railway employee

Answer: 180 days

138.

For miscarriage, including abortion, maternity leave may be granted

Answer: 45 days

139.

Paternity leave admissible per child

Answer: 15 days

140.

LAP credited at the rate of per month

Answer: 2½ days per month

141.

Leave for Trade Apprentices

Answer: 12 days

142.

Apprentice Mechanics/others in Workshops may be granted leave not exceeding

Answer: 16 days

143.

Leave that cannot be combined with others

Answer: Casual Leave

144.

Which combination of leave is as per rules

Answer: All of these

145.

Which combination of leave is NOT in order

Answer: CL + SCL + LAP

146.

Within which period Paternity Leave can be granted

Answer: Six months

 

Transfer:

147.

Days for temporary transfer at a time

Answer: 180 days

148.

Years required for periodical transfer of sensitive post employees

Answer: 4

 

Pass Rules:

149.

PTO sets issued to newly appointed SMs after independent duty

Answer: Four

150.

GM is entitled for ……. Metals

Answer: Gold

151.

Validity of a single set of privilege pass

Answer: 05 months (Full-set)

152.

No. of privilege passes for Non-Gazetted after 5 years

Answer: 03 sets

153.

No. of privilege passes for CCTC after 5 years

Answer: Three

154.

Class of privilege pass for Sr. Clerk in Level-05

Answer: II 'A'

155.

Class of privilege pass for ACM in Level-08

Answer: Ist Class "A"

156.

Members allowed in privilege pass including dependents

Answer: 05 members

157.

Son's age limit for inclusion in school pass

Answer: Up to 18 years

158.

Max number of privilege passes for Office Clerk after 5 years

Answer: 3 full sets

159.

What is the pass under pass rules?

Answer: An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing him to travel in a train gratuitously.

160.

Max validity of passes/PTOs/post-retirement passes from 01.11.2024

Answer: 04 months (Full-set & Single)

161.

Attendants of Pass Holder is

Answer: Full time paid servant

162.

Irregularity for use of Passes may be condoned by

Answer: GM

163.

Definition of Family under pass rules

Answer: Option 1 (Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent...)

164.

No. of dependents included in a pass at a time

Answer: 2

165.

No. of School Pass sets issued per year

Answer: 3 sets per year

 

Conduct Rules:

166.

Which rule of the Railway Service (Conduct) Rules, 1966 deals with prohibition of sexual harassment of working women?

Answer: Rule 3C

167.

A Group ‘C’ Railway servant can accept a gift on his birthday, the value of which does not exceed Rs ____________.

Answer: Rs 7,500/-

168.

The rules relating to giving/taking of dowry is contained in Rule No.___ of Railway Services (Conduct) Rules, 1966.

Answer: 13.A

169.

When a Railway servant enters into a transaction with a person having NO OFFICIAL DEALING in respect of movable property, he/she shall report if value exceeds:

Answer: Two months basic pay

170.

No Railway servant shall sub-let or lease government accommodation – as per which rule?

Answer: Rule 15-A

171.

Intimation must be sent if share/securities/mutual fund transaction exceeds ________ in a year.

Answer: 6 months basic pay

 

DAR (Discipline and Appeal Rules):

172.

Standard Form used for placing a Railway Servant under Suspension is:

Answer: SF-01

173.

Time limit for submitting Revision Petition under DAR:

Answer: 45 days

174.

Which statement bears the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in Railways?

Answer: The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968

175.

Effective date of Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968?

Answer: 1st October, 1968

176.

Standard Form for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet:

Answer: SF-5

177.

Which Rule of DAR 1968 specifies penalties?

Answer: Rule-6

178.

Which Rule of DAR 1968 specifies suspension?

Answer: Rule 4-5

179.

Standard form used for order of deemed suspension:

Answer: SF-2

180.

Annexures attached with major penalty charge memorandum:

Answer: 4

181.

Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under:

Answer: Rule 65 of Pension Rules, 1993

182.

Deemed suspension applies if police custody exceeds:

Answer: 48 hours

183.

Inquiry is not mandatory under:

Answer: Rule 14(ii)

184.

Competent authority for placing under suspension:

Answer: PCPO

185.

Standard duty hours for ministerial staff:

Answer: 40 hours

HWPR (Hours of Work and Period of Rest Rules):

186.

General Manager's power to change duty roster of non-gazetted staff is delegated to:

Answer: Principal Chief Personnel Officer

187.

Staff of essentially intermittent category must have minimum ______ consecutive hours rest in a week including full night:

Answer: 24

188.

Intensive worker must have a minimum of ______ hours of rest in a week:

Answer: 48

189.

Classification of Senior Clerk under HWPR:

Answer: Continuous

190.

Appeal against change in duty roster may be made to:

Answer: Regional Labour Commissioner (Central)

191.

In assessing workload of essentially intermittent classification, periods of inaction of ______ are ignored:

Answer: Less than 5 minutes

192.

Essentially intermittent staff at roadside stations may work ______ extra hours per week if no quarters within 0.5 km:

Answer: 12 hours

193.

Statutory limit for continuous category under HWPR 2005:

Answer: 54 hours

 

RTI (Right to Information Act):

194.

Language allowed for RTI application:

Answer: All the above (English, Hindi, Official Language of the Area)

195.

Normal time limit for disposal of RTI request:

Answer: 30 days

196.

When RTI request is rejected, CPIO must inform:

Answer: All the above (reason, appeal time, appellate authority)

 

Industrial Relations:

197.

PNM at Division level is held once in:

Answer: Two months

198.

PNM at Zonal level is held once in:

Answer: Three months

199.

Expansion of PREM:

Answer: Participation of Railway Employees in Management

200.

Expansion of JCM:

Answer: Joint Consultative Machinery

201.

PNM at Railway Board level is held once in:

Answer: Two months

 

APAR (Annual Performance Appraisal Report):

202.

Minimum period under a supervisor for APAR generation:

Answer: 90 days

203.

Full form of APAR:

Answer: Either A or B (Annual Performance Assessment/ Appraisal Report)

204.

Objectives of writing APAR:

Answer: All the above

205.

Immediate superior officer who writes APAR is known as:

Answer: Reporting Officer

206.

Main focus of Reporting Officer while writing APAR:

Answer: Developmental

207.

Annual year for writing APAR:

Answer: April to March

208.

Reporting Officer submits APAR to:

Answer: Reviewing Officer

209.

When there is only one supervisory level, APAR is written by:

Answer: Reporting Officer

 

NPS (New Pension Scheme):

210.

PFRDA comes under which division of Finance Ministry?

Answer: Department of Financial Services

211.

Permanent Pension Account Number format:

Answer: 16 digits & 12

212.

Lump Sum withdrawal limit in normal exit from NPS 2004:

Answer: Rs. 5 lakhs

213.

Annuity percentage if lump sum withdrawal exceeds prescribed limit in premature exit:

Answer: 60%

214.

Partial withdrawal allowed after how many years and how many times?

Answer: Three years and Three Times

215.

CRA’s registered by PFRDA for NPS:

Answer: KARVY & NSDL

216.

New Pension Scheme is mandatory from:

Answer: 1st January, 2004

217.

PFRDA Act 2013 received assent of President on:

Answer: 18-Sep-2013

 

Allowances:

218.

NHA for employee working in Level 3 to 5 as per 7th CPC is [RBE No.108/2017]

Answer: Rs. 525

219.

Maximum Composite Transfer grant as per 7th PC is

Answer: 80% of Basic Pay

220.

Railway Servant is eligible for Travelling Allowance if he is away from distance of

Answer: 8 KM

221.

Which one of the following is not permissible deduction from subsistence allowance of suspended employee

Answer: Provident Fund

222.

How many MACP is allowed in entire Service?

Answer: 3

223.

The CEA to eldest two children is eligible per month per child [RBE No.147/2017]

Answer: 2250/- + 25% PM

224.

Allowance granted to compensate high cost of living based on the rise of price index is called –

Answer: Dearness Allowance

225.

To be eligible for drawal of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work?

Answer: 8 kms

226.

To get minimum rate of TA, i.e. 100%, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ

Answer: 12 hrs

227.

To get 70% of TA, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ

Answer: 6 hrs

228.

Daily allowance admissibility for absence from Headquarters exceeding six hours but not exceeding 12 hours

Answer: 70%

229.

In cases where both husband and wife are Government Servants, the CTG admissible to spouse transferred within six months but after 60 days of the transfer of the other is

Answer: 50% of Basic Pay

230.

In case of transfer within same city involving change of residence, CTG is

Answer: 1/3

231.

Travelling Allowance for local journey shall be admissible only if the distance from duty exceeds

Answer: 8 kms

232.

House Rent Allowance is admissible up to how many days during all kinds of leave on full rate?

Answer: 180

233.

For payment of traveling allowance, what is the rate for Level 05 and below?

Answer: Rs. 500/- + 25%

234.

Mileage allowance for auto/scooter/motorcycle journeys is

Answer: Rs. 12/- KM + 25%

235.

Night duty allowance is admissible to non-gazetted staff working from

Answer: 22 hrs. to 06 hrs.

236.

National Holiday allowance is payable even when an employee is on

Answer: Rest

237.

Children Education Allowance is for eldest ____ surviving children (conditions apply)

Answer: Two

238.

Annual ceiling for reimbursement of Children Education Allowance (w.e.f. 01.07.2017)

Answer: Rs. 27,000/-

239.

In case both husband and wife are Govt. servants, only ____ can avail CEA reimbursement

Answer: One

240.

What is the rate of stipend entitled to trainee per month?

Answer: Basic Pay + DA

241.

Expansion of CTG

Answer: Composite Transfer Grant

242.

Full form of TPA

Answer: Transport Allowance

243.

Joining time admissible for transfer involving less than 1000 Kms

Answer: 10 days

 

Salary Bill:

244.

The period of one month for which monthly salary is drawn is called –

Answer: Wage period

245.

Allowance granted to compensate high cost of living based on the rise of price index is called –

Answer: Dearness Allowance (R-1303)

246.

What is the name of allowance given to a railway employee to meet the higher rent for private accommodation due to non-availability of railway accommodation?

Answer: House Rent Allowance

247.

What is the full form of IPAS?

Answer: Integrated Payroll and Accounting System

248.

What is the expansion of HRMS?

Answer: Human Resources Management System

 

Industrial Relations:

249.

What is the full form of PNM under Industrial Relations?

Answer: Permanent Negotiating Machinery

250.

Write down the expansion of PREM

Answer: Participation of Railway Employees in Management

251.

JCM stands for

Answer: Joint Consultative Machinery

 

Staff Benefit Fund (SBF):

252.

Who is the Chairman of Staff Benefit Fund at Divisional Level?

Answer: SR.DPO/DPO

 

Cadre:

253.

What is the full name of CCTC category in Commercial Department? [RBE No.087/2023]

Answer: Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk

254.

Mode of appointment for the post of Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk in Level-03 as per RBE No.087/2023

Answer: 50% by DR, 33⅓% by General Selection from Traffic and Commercial Staff in Level-01 & Level-02 and 16⅓% by LDCE

255.

Who is the appointing authority in Level-03 as per General Establishment Rules?

Answer: DCM

256.

Medical classification of Commercial Staff at the time of appointment

Answer: B-2

257.

Procedure for periodical examination for Commercial Staff

Answer: 45, 50 & 55 years of age or every five years on or after 45 years

 

Settlement:

258.

Minimum qualifying service for pension is

Answer: 10 years

259.

Maximum percentage for Government contribution under New Pension Scheme

Answer: 14%

260.

When was Government contribution increased from 10% to 14% under NPS? [RBA No.025/2019]

Answer: 01.04.2019

261.

Minimum qualifying service for Voluntary Retirement Scheme under NPS

Answer: 20 years

262.

Minimum pension to railway employees under Old Pension Scheme as per 7th CPC

Answer: Rs. 9,000/-

263.

Maximum gratuity under retirement account at present

Answer: Rs. 20,00,000/-

264.

When was New Pension Scheme introduced in Indian Railways?

Answer: 01.01.2004

265.

Formula for cash equivalent of leave salary paid at retirement

Answer: (BP + DA) × 300 ÷ 30

266.

Amount recovered every month towards CGEGIS for Group C employees

Answer: Rs. 30

267.

Expansion of UMID

Answer: Unique Medical Identity Card

268.

Last date for settlement dues to be paid to railway employees on retirement

Answer: Last date of every month

 

Honorarium:

269.

Who is the Training Manager nominated for Personnel Department in MDZTI in Southern Railway?

Answer: CPO/IR

270.

A Chief Instructor/Establishment at MDZTI delivering lecture for SC/ST and PH employees is eligible for honorarium of –

Answer: Rs.1,000/-

271.

A competent authority may permit a railway servant to receive an _______ for occasional/intermittent special work.

Answer: Honorarium

272.

Not more than ____ of MDZTI training sessions should be by visiting faculty.

Answer: 15%

 

Training:

273.

What is the full name of MDZTI?

Answer: Multi Disciplinary Zonal Training Institute

274.

As per revised modules, refresher course every 3 years for Clerk/Sr.Clerk etc. is of how many days?

Answer: 5 days

275.

What is the full form of OIRMS?

Answer: Online Indenting Recruitment Management System

276.

CG appointee to post of Technician/Gr.III with SSLC should undergo ______ months of training.

Answer: Three years

277.

Days of initial training for Station Master category as per revised module?

Answer: 90 working days

278.

For posts requiring promotional course, how many chances at admin cost to pass the course?

Answer: Three chances

279.

Days of initial training for Train Manager category as per revised module?

Answer: 50 working days

280.

Days of initial training for Commercial Cum Ticket Clerk category?

Answer: 50 working days

281.

Which statement is correct regarding stipend to trainees in MDZTI/TPJ?

Answer: All of these

282.

Expand MDZTI - each Zonal Railway should have one for training.

Answer: Multi Disciplinary Zonal Training Institute

283.

Who is the Administrative In-charge of MDZTI / TPJ advised by a SAG officer board?

Answer: CPO

284.

Who is the Principal/in-charge of MDZTI / TPJ?

Answer: SG/JAG

285.

Induction course duration for Clerk/Sr. Clerk category in Material Management?

Answer: 5 weeks

286.

How many officers in selection committee including Head of Institute in MDZTI?

Answer: 03 JAG

287.

Who approves the Section Committee of 3 JAG officers in MDZTI / TPJ?

Answer: PCPO only

288.

Honorarium rate per hour per Instructor for Yoga training (w.e.f. 01.03.2007)?

Answer: Rs.75/-

289.

Yoga slot for training <15 days as per RBE No.064/2015?

Answer: One hour Yoga training for entire course

290.

Yoga slot for 15 days to 8 weeks training course?

Answer: One hour Yoga per week

291.

Yoga for 8 to 30 weeks course as per RBE No.064/2015?

Answer: 1 hour/week up to 8 weeks, then 1/hr fortnight

 

IGOT Karmayogi:

292.

What is UIDAI?

Answer: Unique Identification Authority of India

293.

UIDAI has how many regional offices?

Answer: 8

294.

Aadhaar is a ____ digit unique ID number.

Answer: 12

295.

Who maintains Aadhaar demographic and biometric data?

Answer: UIDAI

296.

Enrolment Identification Number has how many digits?

Answer: 28

297.

What is a permanent/temporary centre for enrolment/update of Aadhaar data called?

Answer: Enrolment Centre

298.

Which device is used to capture fingerprints?

Answer: Slap Scanner

299.

Mobile number change is a ____ updation.

Answer: Demographic Updation

300.

What is the official Karmayogi Prarambh website?

Answer: https://igotkarmayogi.gov.in/ is the Official site for Karmayogi Prarambh Module

301.

When was the Karmayogi Prarambh module launched by PM?

Answer: 22nd Nov 2022

302.

Who can register for Karmayogi Prarambh module?

Answer: All Central Govt. employees including new

303.

What is Karmayogi Prarambh Scheme 2022?

Answer: Newly promoted/appointees can attend orientation for efficient duties

 

Promotion:

304.

Max marks in Group C selections for professional ability?

Answer: 50

305.

Max marks in Group C selections for record of service?

Answer: 30

306.

Max marks in Group C selections for seniority?

Answer: 20

307.

Qualifying marks for professional ability in Group C selection?

Answer: 30

308.

Safety category posts selection within 6 months requires whose approval?

Answer: General Manager

309.

Assessment of vacancies includes existing + next ___ months anticipated.

Answer: 15

310.

In ex-cadre post selection, vacancies plus those in next ___ years should be counted.

Answer: 2

311.

Selection to Teacher posts includes both ______ and ______.

Answer: Written + Viva Voce